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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-065 exam questions and answers below. A technician is tasked with performing a room readiness assessment in preparation for an immersive video endpoint. What are three Cisco best practices regarding lighting recommendations for the room? (Choose three.) A. The bulb temperature should be between 4000 and 4100K. B. Key lighting should be between 200 and 400 Lux with the endpoint powered on. C. Shoulder lighting should not exceed two times the facial lighting values with the endpoint off. D. Use direct lighting fixtures. E. Within the camera field of view, the lighting for all parts of the room should not fluctuate more than 100 Lux. F. Avoid using dimming light control systems. Answer: A, C, E
Which scheduling and management application can be installed on any hardware platform that meets the minimum specifications that the end customer decides to deploy? A. Cisco Video Communications B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite C. Cisco Digital Media Manager D. Cisco TelePresence Management Switch E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Answer: B
Which level of AES encryption does Cisco Unified Presence and Cisco Unified Communications IM and Presence use? A. 256 bit B. 128 bit C. 2048 bit D. 8 bit E. 512 bit Answer: A
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured? A. Smart Scheduler B. Low-touch Provisioning C. FindMe D. CMR Provisioning Answer: C
Which benefits does the Capture-Transform-Share solution provide? A. voice conferencing services B. WAN optimization services C. security and firewall services D. video conferencing services E. DNS, DHCP, and AD services F. video on demand and video streaming services Answer: F
Which video-bridging solution supports single-screen units and multiscreen systems and keeps multiscreen units grouped together logically during a call? A. Cisco MCU B. Cisco PVDM C. Cisco TelePresence Server D. Cisco TMS E. Cisco TCS Answer: C
An executive in XYZ Corporation wants to purchase a desktop video endpoint that can be used for conferencing, as well as a monitor when not in a conference. Which option do you recommend? A. C20 B. EX90 C. C90 D. SX80 E. MX300 2nd generation F. Cisco TelePresence Profile Series endpoint Answer: B
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Which two things can cause the "Send to VRU" to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.) A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client. B. VRU PIM just got out of service. C. Incorrect media file name. D. Send to originator is not enabled. E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service. Answer: A,B
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window? A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS Answer: C
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true? A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network. B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network. C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored. D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode. Answer: D
You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDS-DDS. Which is the best explanation? A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date. B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date. C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date. D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication. Answer: A
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable? A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192. B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from "Monday" to "Tuesday". C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero. D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call. E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier. Answer: A
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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below. A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide? A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * * B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # # C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * * D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # # Answer: C
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers? A. The primary extension is configured. B. The user's phones are listed as a controlled device. C. Users are associated with their directory number. D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately. Answer: D
Which two items must first be configured before users can be added into Unity Connection via the Bulk Administration Tool? (Choose two.) A. partitions B. classes of service C. search spaces D. user templates E. schedules Answer: B,D
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers? A. Alternate Extension B. Notification Devices C. Alternate Names D. Message Settings E. Caller Input F. Mailbox Answer: A
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager protocol communicates with collaboration endpoints? A. SCCP B. RTP C. SIP D. CDP Answer: C
An SCCP IP phone places a call to a SIP phone that is registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. During the active call, call waiting indicates a second call is incoming to the handset, but the user decides to ignore it. In this scenario, what is the combined total number of signaling conversations and media flows that used the SCCP phone as an endpoint? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 Answer: B
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager plug in allows administrators to proactively monitor the overall health of their Cisco cluster? A. RTMT B. Cisco AXL Toolkit C. Cisco CTL Client D. Cisco JTAPI E. Cisco TAPS Answer: A
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user's phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page? A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box Answer: C
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Which command will limit debug output ppp authentication on serial 0/1 and serial 0/2? A. debug condition interface range s0/1 -0/2 debug ppp authentication B. debug condition interface s0/1 & 0/2 debug ppp authentication C. debug int s0/1 debug int 0/2 debug ppp authentication D. Debug condition interface s0/1 Debug condition interface s0/2 debug ppp authentication Answer: D
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as theAS number. D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. Answer: D
What is the solution to the fault condition? A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. B. Under the interface Loopback6 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. C. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. D. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter the redistribute rip RIP_ZONE include-connected command. Answer: D
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command Answer: C
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration add the permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command. C. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration delete the deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any command D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access group edge_security out command Answer: A
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NAT C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: G
R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) (Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes) A. They are not neighbors B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2 C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-) D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA E. R2 should be configured as stub Answer: BC
How to check MTU of interface using ping? / How can you check the links mtu size with ping command? A. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1501 B. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 df-bit C. ping 10.1.1.1 D. ping 10.1.1.1 no-size Answer: B
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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below. Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.) A. They use ICMPv6 type 134. B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits. C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits. D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address. E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node. Answer: AB
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.) A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses. B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts. Answer: BC
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configurationt status on a given cisco switch? (Choose two) A. show interfaces interface B. show interfaces trunk C. show interfaces switchport D. show ip interface brief E. show interfaces vlan Answer: BC
Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem? A. no earner B. late collisions C. giants D. CRC errors E. deferred F. runts Answer: B
Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation? A. router#show platform B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0 C. router#show ip interface s0/2/0 D. router#show ip interface brief Answer: B
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices? A. R(config-if)#cdp run B. R(config-if)#cdp enable C. R(config)#cdp run D. R(config)#cdp enable Answer: C
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Share some Network Appliance NCDA Certification NS0-158 exam questions and answers below. What are the two valid settings for fractional reserve? (Choose two.) A. 100% B. 20% C. 0% D. 50% Answer: A,C
A customer wants to use jumbo frames on an interface group called a0a. Interface group a0a contains ports e0c and e0d. Additionally, the customer is using VLAN tagging for VLANs 510 and 520. VLAN 510 will use jumbo frames but VLAN 520 will not. When the customer tries to enable jumbo frames on a0a-510 the command fails. What caused the failure? A. The MTU size must be set on the broadcast domain to which the ports belong. B. The LIF corresponding with VLAN 510 is not configured for jumbo frames. C. Ports e0c and e0d have conflicting MTU sizes configured. D. Jumbo frames must be enabled from the advanced privilege set. Answer: A
You create a 150 GB thick-provisioned volume. In that volume, you create a 50 GB LUN with space-reserve enabled. You create another 50 GB LUN with space-reserve disabled. Before any data is written to either LUN or a Snapshot is taken, how much space will be available in the volume for additional LUNs? A. 150 GB B. 100 GB C. 75 GB D. 50 GB Answer: B
Which statement describes a MetroCluster environment in clustered Data ONTAP? A. A single cluster at each site interconnected using FC switches and Ethernet switches. B. A single cluster at each site interconnected using FC switches only. C. A single HA pair cabled across sites using FC switches. D. A single HA pair stretched across sites using extended cables. Answer: B
Your company is told that it must follow strict requirements for auditing purposes when creating user accounts for each department. Which feature in clustered Data ONTAP accomplishes this task? A. LDAP integration B. workgroup access C. role-based access control D. mixed-mode security Answer: C
You have created a storage virtual machine named SVM1 with a NetBIOS name of FILES1 and you have successfully joined the Active Directory domain. You have created a CIFS share called SHARE1 and have given read/write access to all users. Network connectivity has been verified. To which path should the users be mapping? A. \\SHARE1\FILES1 B. \\FILES1\SHARE1 C. \\SVM1\FILES1 D. \\FILES1\SVM1 Answer: B
You have multiple volumes that are exported to a group of hosts within your environment. A new host needs access to the volumes. Which two actions accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. Mount the new exports from the host. B. Create a new SVM. C. Create a rule in the export policy on the SVM. D. Create a new data LIF on the SVM. Answer: A,C
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